Thread:MrHobit1234/@comment-26210095-20151103154735/@comment-26210095-20151104233134

I am not using this as an excuse, but remember the LOTR is meant to be a translation (or at least represents) the Red Book of Westmarch. This was written in a heavy pro-Gondorian style, and there are Basicaly no cultures of civilized evil me, which I consider preposterous, with all respect to the good Professor. Also, I assume for the Black Numenorean race to have declined, of course, but how did Gondor retain such a high population of Dunedain while Umbar did not. In my opinion, I am being completely fair. Gondor was extremely weakened by the WOTR, and so was Umbar. So both were on around equal terms. Seriously, why does this have to continue? Daechir is as no cannon and unprobable as all hell, but I don't make a giant fuss about it.